Quizbank/College Physics/II FEstudy

1. These two pulses will collide and produce

___ a) negative interference

___ b) positive interference

___ c) positive diffraction

___ d) negative diffraction

2. These two pulses will collide and produce

___ a) negative diffraction

___ b) negative interference

___ c) positive diffraction

___ d) positive interference

3. These two pulses will collide and produce

___ a) positive interference

___ b) negative diffraction

___ c) positive diffraction

___ d) negative interference

4. Two signals (dashed) add to a solid

___ a) dissonance

___ b) octave

___ c) fifth

5. Two signals (dashed) add to a solid

___ a) fifth

___ b) dissonance

___ c) octave

6. Two signals (dashed) add to a solid

___ a) fifth

___ b) octave

___ c) dissonance

7. Why don't we hear beats when two different notes on a piano are played at the same time?

___ a) The note is over by the time the first beat is heard

___ b) The beats happen so many times per second you can't hear them.

___ c) Echo usually stifles the beats

___ d) Reverberation usually stifles the beats

8. A tuning fork with a frequency of 440 Hz is played simultaneously with a tuning fork of 442 Hz. How many beats are heard in 10 seconds?

___ a) 20

___ b) 40

___ c) 30

___ d) 50

___ e) 60

9. If you start moving towards a source of sound, the pitch becomes

___ a) lower

___ b) higher

___ c) unchanged

10. If a source of sound is moving towards you, the pitch becomes

___ a) unchanged

___ b) higher

___ c) lower

11. Why do rough walls give a concert hall a “fuller” sound, compared to smooth walls?

___ a) The difference in path lengths creates more echo.

___ b) Rough walls make for a louder sound.

___ c) The difference in path lengths creates more reverberation.

12. People don't usually perceive an echo when

___ a) it arrives at exactly the same pitch

___ b) it takes more than a tenth of a second after the original sound to arrive

___ c) it arrives at a higher pitch

___ d) it arrives less than a tenth of a second after the original sound

___ e) it arrives at a lower pitch

13. A dense rope is connected to a rope with less density (i.e. fewer kilograms per meter). If the rope is stretched and a wave is sent along high density rope,

___ a) the low density rope supports a wave with a lower speed

___ b) the low density rope supports a wave with a higher speed

___ c) the low density rope supports a wave with a lower frequency

___ d) the low density rope supports a wave with a higher frequency

14. What happens to the wavelength on a wave on a stretched string if the wave passes from lightweight (low density) region of the rope to a heavy (high density) rope?

___ a) the wavelength gets longer

___ b) the wavelength stays the same

___ c) the wavelength gets shorter

15. When a wave is reflected off a stationary barrier, the reflected wave

___ a) has higher frequency than the incident wave

___ b) has lower amplitude than the incident wave

___ c) both of these are true

16. Comparing a typical church to a professional baseball stadium, the church is likely to have

___ a) echo instead of reverberation

___ b) both reverberation and echo

___ c) neither reverberation nor echo

___ d) reverberation instead of echo

17. The temperature is -3 degrees Celsius, and you are standing 0.66 km from a cliff. What is the echo time?

___a) 2.949 x 10⁰ seconds

___b) 3.184 x 10⁰ seconds

___c) 3.438 x 10⁰ seconds

___d) 3.713 x 10⁰ seconds

___e) 4.009 x 10⁰ seconds

18. While standing 0.83 km from a cliff, you measure the echo time to be 4.832 seconds. What is the temperature?

___a) 1.57 x 10¹Celsius

___b) 1.81 x 10¹Celsius

___c) 2.09 x 10¹Celsius

___d) 2.42 x 10¹Celsius

___e) 2.79 x 10¹Celsius

19. What is the speed of a transverse wave on a string if the string is 1.05 m long, clamped at both ends, and harmonic number 5 has a frequency of 153 Hz?

___a) 5.3 x 10¹ unit

___b) 6.43 x 10¹ unit

___c) 7.79 x 10¹ unit

___d) 9.43 x 10¹ unit

___e) 1.14 x 10² unit

20. What is the magnitude of the electric field at the origin if a 3 nC charge is placed at x = 5.1 m, and a 2 nC charge is placed at y = 8.6 m?

___a) 7.99 x 10^-1N/C

___b) 9.22 x 10^-1N/C

___c) 1.07 x 10⁰N/C

___d) 1.23 x 10⁰N/C

___e) 1.42 x 10⁰N/C

21. What angle does the electric field at the origin make with the x-axis if a 2 nC charge is placed at x = -8 m, and a 1.4 nC charge is placed at y = -9.3 m?

___a) 2.37 x 10¹degrees

___b) 2.74 x 10¹degrees

___c) 3.16 x 10¹degrees

___d) 3.65 x 10¹degrees

___e) 4.22 x 10¹degrees

22. A dipole at the origin consists of charge Q placed at x = 0.5a, and charge of -Q placed at x = -0.5a. The absolute value of the x component of the electric field at (x,y) =( 6a, 4a) is βkQ/a², where β equals

___a) 1.33 x 10^-3 unit

___b) 1.61 x 10^-3 unit

___c) 1.95 x 10^-3 unit

___d) 2.37 x 10^-3 unit

___e) 2.87 x 10^-3 unit

23. A dipole at the origin consists of charge Q placed at x = 0.5a, and charge of -Q placed at x = -0.5a. The absolute value of the y component of the electric field at (x,y) =( 1.1a, 1.2a) is βkQ/a², where β equals

___a) 3.47 x 10^-1 unit

___b) 4.2 x 10^-1 unit

___c) 5.09 x 10^-1 unit

___d) 6.17 x 10^-1 unit

___e) 7.47 x 10^-1 unit

24. How fast is a 2952 eV electron moving?

___a) 6.4 x 10⁶ m/s.

___b) 9.5 x 10⁶ m/s.

___c) 1.4 x 10⁷ m/s.

___d) 2.1 x 10⁷ m/s.

___e) 3.2 x 10⁷ m/s.

25. A proton is accellerated (at rest) from a plate held at 775.8 volts to a plate at zero volts. What is the final speed?

___a) 7.6 x 10⁴ m/s.

___b) 1.1 x 10⁵ m/s.

___c) 1.7 x 10⁵ m/s.

___d) 2.6 x 10⁵ m/s.

___e) 3.9 x 10⁵ m/s.

26. What voltage is required accelerate an electron at rest to a speed of 5.5 x 10⁵ m/s?

___a) 2.5 x 10^-1 volts

___b) 3.8 x 10^-1 volts

___c) 5.7 x 10^-1 volts

___d) 8.6 x 10^-1 volts

___e) 1.3 x 10⁰ volts

27. What voltage is required to stop a proton moving at a speed of 5.2 x 10⁷ m/s?

___a) 9.4 x 10⁶ volts

___b) 1.4 x 10⁷ volts

___c) 2.1 x 10⁷ volts

___d) 3.2 x 10⁷ volts

___e) 4.8 x 10⁷ volts

28. A parallel plate capacitor has both plates with an area of 0.75 m². The separation between the plates is 1.53mm. Applied to the plates is a potential difference of 5.05 kV. What is the capacitance?

___a) 3.28 nF.

___b) 3.77 nF.

___c) 4.34 nF.

___d) 4.99 nF.

___e) 5.74 nF.

29. The same parallel plate capacitor, with area 0.55 m², plate separation 0.53mm, and an applied voltage of 4.25 kV. How much charge is stored?

___a) 39.05 μC.

___b) 44.91 μC.

___c) 51.64 μC.

___d) 59.39 μC.

___e) 68.3 μC.

30. A 0.8 Farad capacitor is charged with 1.7 Coulombs. What is the value of the electric field if the plates are 0.5 mm apart?

___a) 2.43 kV/m.

___b) 2.79 kV/m.

___c) 3.21 kV/m.

___d) 3.7 kV/m.

___e) 4.25 kV/m.

31. A 0.8 Farad capacitor charged with 1.7 Coulombs. What is the energy stored in the capacitor if the plates are 0.5 mm apart?

___a) 1.81 J.

___b) 2.08 J.

___c) 2.39 J.

___d) 2.75 J.

___e) 3.16 J.

32. A 0.5 Farad capacitor charged with 1.3 Coulombs. What is the force between the plates if they are 0.7 mm apart?

___a) 1826 N.

___b) 2099 N.

___c) 2414 N.

___d) 2776 N.

___e) 3193 N.

33. An ideal 5.2 V voltage source is connected to two resistors in parallel. One is 1.2, and the other is 3.6 . What is the current through the larger resistor?

___a) 0.94 mA.

___b) 1.08 mA.

___c) 1.25 mA.

___d) 1.43 mA.

___e) 1.65 mA.

34. A 7 ohm resistor is connected in series to a pair of 3.4 ohm resistors that are in parallel. What is the net resistance?

___a) 6.6 ohms.

___b) 7.6 ohms.

___c) 8.7 ohms.

___d) 10 ohms.

___e) 11.5 ohms.

35. Two 6.2 ohm resistors are connected in parallel. This combination is then connected in series to a 2.6 ohm resistor. What is the net resistance?

___a) 3.7 ohms.

___b) 4.3 ohms.

___c) 5 ohms.

___d) 5.7 ohms.

___e) 6.6 ohms.

36. An ideal 7.4 volt battery is connected to a 0.074 ohm resistor. To measure the current an ammeter with a resistance of 12 is used. What current does the ammeter actually read?

___a) 49.2 A.

___b) 56.6 A.

___c) 65.1 A.

___d) 74.8 A.

___e) 86 A.

37. A battery has an emf of 5.3 volts, and an internal resistance of 428 . It is connected to a 2.3 resistor. What power is developed in the 2.3 resistor?

___a) 4.96 W.

___b) 5.71 W.

___c) 6.56 W.

___d) 7.55 W.

___e) 8.68 W.

38. A cosmic ray alpha particle encounters Earth's magnetic field at right angles to a field of 7.4 μT. The kinetic energy is 437 keV. What is the radius of particle's orbit?

___a) 1.3 x 10² m.

___b) 4.1 x 10² m.

___c) 1.3 x 10³ m.

___d) 4.1 x 10³ m.

___e) 1.3 x 10⁴ m.

39. Two parallel wires are 7.5 meters long, and are separated by 4.4 mm. What is the force if both wires carry a current of 14.8 amps?

___a) 2.36 x 10^-3 newtons

___b) 7.47 x 10^-3 newtons

___c) 2.36 x 10^-2 newtons

___d) 7.47 x 10^-2 newtons

___e) 2.36 x 10^-1 newtons

40. Blood is flowing at an average rate of 21.5 cm/s in an artery that has an inner diameter of 3.5 mm. What is the voltage across a hall probe placed across the inner diameter of the artery if the perpendicular magnetic field is 0.11 Tesla?

___a) 8.28 x 10^-6 Volts

___b) 2.62 x 10^-5 Volts

___c) 8.28 x 10^-5 Volts

___d) 2.62 x 10^-4 Volts

___e) 8.28 x 10^-4 Volts

41. An electron tube on Earth's surface is oriented horizontally towards magnetic north. The electron is traveling at 0.06c, and Earth's magnetic field makes an angle of 48.5 degrees with respect to the horizontal. To counter the magnetic force, a voltage is applied between two large parallel plates that are 59 mm apart. What must be the applied voltage if the magnetic field is 45μT?

___a) 1.1 x 10⁰ volts

___b) 3.6 x 10⁰ volts

___c) 1.1 x 10¹ volts

___d) 3.6 x 10¹ volts

___e) 1.1 x 10² volts

42. Which lens has the shorter focal length?

___ a)

___ b)

___ c) They have the same focal lengh.

43. If this represents the eye looking at an object, where is this object?

___ a) very far away

___ b) at infinity

___ c) directly in front of the eye (almost touching)

___ d) One focal length in front of the eye

___ e) Two (of the other answers) are true

44. After passing through a the lens of a camera or the eye, the focal point is defined as where the rays meet.

___ a) true

___ b) false

45. Mr. Smith is gazing at something as shown in the figure to the left. Suppose he does not refocus, but attempts to stare at the star shown in the figures below. Which diagram depicts how the rays from the star would travel if he does not refocus?

___ a)

___ b)

___ c)

46.

Shown is a corrective lens by a person who needs glasses. This ray diagram illustrates

___ a) how a nearsighted person might see an object that is too close for comfort

___ b) how a farsighted person might see a distant object

___ c) how a nearsighted person might see a distant object

___ d) how a farsighted person might see an object that is too close for comfort

47.

Shown is a corrective lens by a person who needs glasses. This ray diagram illustrates

___ a) how a nearsighted person might see a distant object

___ b) how a farsighted person might see an object that is too close for comfort

___ c) how a nearsighted person might see an object that is too close for comfort

___ d) how a farsighted person might see a distant object

48. In optics, normal means

___ a) to the left of the optical axis

___ b) parallel to the surface

___ c) to the right of the optical axis

___ d) perpendicular to the surface

49. The law of reflection applies to

___ a) only light in a vacuum

___ b) both flat and curved surfaces

___ c) telescopes but not microscopes

___ d) curved surfaces

___ e) flat surfaces

50. When light passes from air to glass

___ a) it does not bend

___ b) the frequency increases

___ c) the frequency decreases

___ d) it bends towards the normal

___ e) it bends away from the normal

51. When light passes from glass to air

___ a) the frequency decreases

___ b) the frequency increases

___ c) it bends away from the normal

___ d) it bends towards the normal

___ e) it does not bend

52. An important principle that allows fiber optics to work is

___ a) partial internal absorption

___ b) the invariance of the speed of light

___ c) total external refraction

___ d) the Doppler shift

___ e) total internal reflection

53. The focal point is where

___ a) the center of the lens

___ b) rays meet whenever they pass through a lens

___ c) rays meet whenever they are forming an image

___ d) rays meet if they were parallel to the optical axis before striking a lens

___ e) rays meet if they are parallel to each other

54. An object is placed 8 cm to the left of a diverging lens with a focal length of 4.3 cm. How far is the image from the lens?

___a) 2.8 x 10⁰ cm

___b) 4.97 x 10⁰ cm

___c) 8.84 x 10⁰ cm

___d) 1.57 x 10¹ cm

___e) 2.8 x 10¹ cm

55. An object is placed 4.15 cm to the left of a converging lens with a focal length of 3.6 cm. How far is the image from the lens?

___a) 8.59 x 10⁰ cm

___b) 1.53 x 10¹ cm

___c) 2.72 x 10¹ cm

___d) 4.83 x 10¹ cm

___e) 8.59 x 10¹ cm

56. An object of height 0.75 cm is placed 147 cm behind a diverging lens with a focal length of 86 cm. What is the height of the image?

___a) 2.77 x 10^-1 cm

___b) 3.32 x 10^-1 cm

___c) 3.99 x 10^-1 cm

___d) 4.78 x 10^-1 cm

___e) 5.74 x 10^-1 cm

57. An object is placed 10.9 cm to the left of a diverging lens with a focal length of 16.3 cm. On the side, at a distance of 5.7 cm from the diverging lens is a converging lens with focal length equal to 4 cm. How far is the final image from the converging lens?

___a) 1.88 x 10⁰ cm

___b) 5.94 x 10⁰ cm

___c) 1.88 x 10¹ cm

___d) 5.94 x 10¹ cm

___e) 1.88 x 10² cm

58. Excepting cases where where quantum jumps in energy are induced in another object (i.e., using only the uncertainty principle), which would NOT put a classical particle into the quantum regime?

___ a) low mass

___ b) confinement to a small space

___ c) low speed

___ d) high speed

59. How does the Bohr atom differ from Newton's theory of planetary orbits?

___ a) The force between proton and electron is not attractive for the atom, but it is for planets and the sun.

___ b) electrons make elliptical orbits while planets make circular orbits

___ c) The force between planets and the sun is not attractive for the atom, but it is for proton and electron.

___ d) planets make elliptical orbits while the electron makes circular orbits

60. What are the units of Plank's constant?

___ a) momentum x distance

___ b) energy x time

___ c) all of the above

___ d) mass x velocity x distance

___ e) none of the above

61. What are the units of Plank's constant?

___ a) mass x velocity

___ b) all of the above

___ c) momentum x distance x mass

___ d) none of the above

___ e) energy x time

62. How would you describe Old Quantum Theory

___ a) self-consistent but not complete

___ b) complete and self-consistent

___ c) complete but not self-consistent

___ d) neither complete nor self-consistent

63. The first paper that introduced quantum mechanics was the study of

___ a) light

___ b) protons

___ c) electrons

___ d) energy

64. What are examples of energy?

___ a) heat

___ b) mgh where m is mass, g is gravity, and h is height

___ c) all of the above

___ d)

65. What are examples of energy?

___ a)

___ b) all of the above

___ c) heat

___ d) momentum

66. What was Plank's understanding of the significance of his work on blackbody radiation?

___ a) he knew it would someday win him a Nobel prize

___ b) he eventually convinced his dissertation committee that the theory was correct

___ c) the thought it was some sort of mathematical trick

___ d) he was afraid to publish it for fear of losing his reputation

67. What was "spooky" about Taylor's 1909 experiment with wave interference?

___ a) The light was dim, but it didn't matter because he was blind.

___ b) The interference pattern mysteriously disappeared.

___ c) The light was so dim that the photoelectric effect couldn't occur

___ d) The light was so dim that only one photon at a time was near the slits.

68. Approximately how often does a supernovae occur in a typical galaxy?

___ a) once a 5 months

___ b) once every 5 years

___ c) once every 50 years

69. If a star were rushing towards Earth at a high speed

___ a) there would be no shift in the spectral lines

___ b) there would be a red shift in the spectral lines

___ c) there would be a blue shift in the spectral lines

70. An example of a standard candle is

___ a) all of these are standard candles

___ b) a supernova in a distant galaxy

___ c) any part of the nighttime sky that is giving off light

___ d) any part of the nighttime sky that is dark

71. If a galaxy that is 10 Mpc away is receding at 700km/s, how far would a galaxy be receding if it were 20 Mpc away?

___ a) 350km/s

___ b) 700km/s

___ c) 1400km/s

72. The "apparent" magnitude of a star is

___ a) How bright it is as viewed from Earth

___ b) How bright it would be if it were not receding due to Hubble expansion

___ c) How bright it would be if you were exactly one light year away

73. In the essay "Why the sky is dark at night", a graph of velocity versus distance is shown. What is odd about those galaxies in the Virgo cluster (circled in the graph)?

___ a) they have a wide variety of speeds

___ b) they are not receding away from us

___ c) the cluster is close to us

___ d) they all have nearly the same speed

74. Why was it important to observe supernovae in galaxies that are close to us?

___ a) it is easier to measure the doppler shift, and that is not always easy to measure.

___ b) because supernovea are impossible to see in distant galaxies

___ c) we have other ways of knowing the distances to the nearby galaxies; this gives us the opportunity to study supernovae of known distance and ascertain their absolute magnitude.

___ d) they have less of a red-shift, and interstellar gas absorbs red light

75. What if clouds of dust blocked the light from distant stars? Could that allow for an infinite and static universe?

___ a) No, there are clouds, but they remain too cold to resolve the paradox

___ b) Yes, that is an actively pursued hypothesis

___ c) No, if there were clouds, we wouldn't see the distant galaxies

___ d) No, the clouds would get hot

1. These two pulses will collide and produce

- a) negative interference

+ b) positive interference

- c) positive diffraction

- d) negative diffraction

2. These two pulses will collide and produce

- a) negative diffraction

+ b) negative interference

- c) positive diffraction

- d) positive interference

3. These two pulses will collide and produce

+ a) positive interference

- b) negative diffraction

- c) positive diffraction

- d) negative interference

4. Two signals (dashed) add to a solid

- a) dissonance

+ b) octave

- c) fifth

5. Two signals (dashed) add to a solid

- a) fifth

+ b) dissonance

- c) octave

6. Two signals (dashed) add to a solid

+ a) fifth

- b) octave

- c) dissonance

7. Why don't we hear beats when two different notes on a piano are played at the same time?

- a) The note is over by the time the first beat is heard

+ b) The beats happen so many times per second you can't hear them.

- c) Echo usually stifles the beats

- d) Reverberation usually stifles the beats

8. A tuning fork with a frequency of 440 Hz is played simultaneously with a tuning fork of 442 Hz. How many beats are heard in 10 seconds?

+ a) 20

- b) 40

- c) 30

- d) 50

- e) 60

9. If you start moving towards a source of sound, the pitch becomes

- a) lower

+ b) higher

- c) unchanged

10. If a source of sound is moving towards you, the pitch becomes

- a) unchanged

+ b) higher

- c) lower

11. Why do rough walls give a concert hall a “fuller” sound, compared to smooth walls?

- a) The difference in path lengths creates more echo.

- b) Rough walls make for a louder sound.

+ c) The difference in path lengths creates more reverberation.

12. People don't usually perceive an echo when

- a) it arrives at exactly the same pitch

- b) it takes more than a tenth of a second after the original sound to arrive

- c) it arrives at a higher pitch

+ d) it arrives less than a tenth of a second after the original sound

- e) it arrives at a lower pitch

13. A dense rope is connected to a rope with less density (i.e. fewer kilograms per meter). If the rope is stretched and a wave is sent along high density rope,

- a) the low density rope supports a wave with a lower speed

+ b) the low density rope supports a wave with a higher speed

- c) the low density rope supports a wave with a lower frequency

- d) the low density rope supports a wave with a higher frequency

14. What happens to the wavelength on a wave on a stretched string if the wave passes from lightweight (low density) region of the rope to a heavy (high density) rope?

+ a) the wavelength gets longer

- b) the wavelength stays the same

- c) the wavelength gets shorter

15. When a wave is reflected off a stationary barrier, the reflected wave

- a) has higher frequency than the incident wave

+ b) has lower amplitude than the incident wave

- c) both of these are true

16. Comparing a typical church to a professional baseball stadium, the church is likely to have

- a) echo instead of reverberation

- b) both reverberation and echo

- c) neither reverberation nor echo

+ d) reverberation instead of echo

17. The temperature is -3 degrees Celsius, and you are standing 0.66 km from a cliff. What is the echo time?

-a) 2.949 x 10⁰ seconds

-b) 3.184 x 10⁰ seconds

-c) 3.438 x 10⁰ seconds

-d) 3.713 x 10⁰ seconds

+e) 4.009 x 10⁰ seconds

18. While standing 0.83 km from a cliff, you measure the echo time to be 4.832 seconds. What is the temperature?

-a) 1.57 x 10¹Celsius

-b) 1.81 x 10¹Celsius

+c) 2.09 x 10¹Celsius

-d) 2.42 x 10¹Celsius

-e) 2.79 x 10¹Celsius

19. What is the speed of a transverse wave on a string if the string is 1.05 m long, clamped at both ends, and harmonic number 5 has a frequency of 153 Hz?

-a) 5.3 x 10¹ unit

+b) 6.43 x 10¹ unit

-c) 7.79 x 10¹ unit

-d) 9.43 x 10¹ unit

-e) 1.14 x 10² unit

20. What is the magnitude of the electric field at the origin if a 3 nC charge is placed at x = 5.1 m, and a 2 nC charge is placed at y = 8.6 m?

-a) 7.99 x 10^-1N/C

-b) 9.22 x 10^-1N/C

+c) 1.07 x 10⁰N/C

-d) 1.23 x 10⁰N/C

-e) 1.42 x 10⁰N/C

21. What angle does the electric field at the origin make with the x-axis if a 2 nC charge is placed at x = -8 m, and a 1.4 nC charge is placed at y = -9.3 m?

-a) 2.37 x 10¹degrees

+b) 2.74 x 10¹degrees

-c) 3.16 x 10¹degrees

-d) 3.65 x 10¹degrees

-e) 4.22 x 10¹degrees

22. A dipole at the origin consists of charge Q placed at x = 0.5a, and charge of -Q placed at x = -0.5a. The absolute value of the x component of the electric field at (x,y) =( 6a, 4a) is βkQ/a², where β equals

-a) 1.33 x 10^-3 unit

-b) 1.61 x 10^-3 unit

-c) 1.95 x 10^-3 unit

-d) 2.37 x 10^-3 unit

+e) 2.87 x 10^-3 unit

23. A dipole at the origin consists of charge Q placed at x = 0.5a, and charge of -Q placed at x = -0.5a. The absolute value of the y component of the electric field at (x,y) =( 1.1a, 1.2a) is βkQ/a², where β equals

+a) 3.47 x 10^-1 unit

-b) 4.2 x 10^-1 unit

-c) 5.09 x 10^-1 unit

-d) 6.17 x 10^-1 unit

-e) 7.47 x 10^-1 unit

24. How fast is a 2952 eV electron moving?

-a) 6.4 x 10⁶ m/s.

-b) 9.5 x 10⁶ m/s.

-c) 1.4 x 10⁷ m/s.

-d) 2.1 x 10⁷ m/s.

+e) 3.2 x 10⁷ m/s.

25. A proton is accellerated (at rest) from a plate held at 775.8 volts to a plate at zero volts. What is the final speed?

-a) 7.6 x 10⁴ m/s.

-b) 1.1 x 10⁵ m/s.

-c) 1.7 x 10⁵ m/s.

-d) 2.6 x 10⁵ m/s.

+e) 3.9 x 10⁵ m/s.

26. What voltage is required accelerate an electron at rest to a speed of 5.5 x 10⁵ m/s?

-a) 2.5 x 10^-1 volts

-b) 3.8 x 10^-1 volts

-c) 5.7 x 10^-1 volts

+d) 8.6 x 10^-1 volts

-e) 1.3 x 10⁰ volts

27. What voltage is required to stop a proton moving at a speed of 5.2 x 10⁷ m/s?

-a) 9.4 x 10⁶ volts

+b) 1.4 x 10⁷ volts

-c) 2.1 x 10⁷ volts

-d) 3.2 x 10⁷ volts

-e) 4.8 x 10⁷ volts

28. A parallel plate capacitor has both plates with an area of 0.75 m². The separation between the plates is 1.53mm. Applied to the plates is a potential difference of 5.05 kV. What is the capacitance?

-a) 3.28 nF.

-b) 3.77 nF.

+c) 4.34 nF.

-d) 4.99 nF.

-e) 5.74 nF.

29. The same parallel plate capacitor, with area 0.55 m², plate separation 0.53mm, and an applied voltage of 4.25 kV. How much charge is stored?

+a) 39.05 μC.

-b) 44.91 μC.

-c) 51.64 μC.

-d) 59.39 μC.

-e) 68.3 μC.

30. A 0.8 Farad capacitor is charged with 1.7 Coulombs. What is the value of the electric field if the plates are 0.5 mm apart?

-a) 2.43 kV/m.

-b) 2.79 kV/m.

-c) 3.21 kV/m.

-d) 3.7 kV/m.

+e) 4.25 kV/m.

31. A 0.8 Farad capacitor charged with 1.7 Coulombs. What is the energy stored in the capacitor if the plates are 0.5 mm apart?

+a) 1.81 J.

-b) 2.08 J.

-c) 2.39 J.

-d) 2.75 J.

-e) 3.16 J.

32. A 0.5 Farad capacitor charged with 1.3 Coulombs. What is the force between the plates if they are 0.7 mm apart?

-a) 1826 N.

-b) 2099 N.

+c) 2414 N.

-d) 2776 N.

-e) 3193 N.

33. An ideal 5.2 V voltage source is connected to two resistors in parallel. One is 1.2, and the other is 3.6 . What is the current through the larger resistor?

-a) 0.94 mA.

+b) 1.08 mA.

-c) 1.25 mA.

-d) 1.43 mA.

-e) 1.65 mA.

34. A 7 ohm resistor is connected in series to a pair of 3.4 ohm resistors that are in parallel. What is the net resistance?

-a) 6.6 ohms.

-b) 7.6 ohms.

+c) 8.7 ohms.

-d) 10 ohms.

-e) 11.5 ohms.

35. Two 6.2 ohm resistors are connected in parallel. This combination is then connected in series to a 2.6 ohm resistor. What is the net resistance?

-a) 3.7 ohms.

-b) 4.3 ohms.

-c) 5 ohms.

+d) 5.7 ohms.

-e) 6.6 ohms.

36. An ideal 7.4 volt battery is connected to a 0.074 ohm resistor. To measure the current an ammeter with a resistance of 12 is used. What current does the ammeter actually read?

-a) 49.2 A.

-b) 56.6 A.

-c) 65.1 A.

-d) 74.8 A.

+e) 86 A.

37. A battery has an emf of 5.3 volts, and an internal resistance of 428 . It is connected to a 2.3 resistor. What power is developed in the 2.3 resistor?

-a) 4.96 W.

-b) 5.71 W.

-c) 6.56 W.

-d) 7.55 W.

+e) 8.68 W.

38. A cosmic ray alpha particle encounters Earth's magnetic field at right angles to a field of 7.4 μT. The kinetic energy is 437 keV. What is the radius of particle's orbit?

-a) 1.3 x 10² m.

-b) 4.1 x 10² m.

-c) 1.3 x 10³ m.

-d) 4.1 x 10³ m.

+e) 1.3 x 10⁴ m.

39. Two parallel wires are 7.5 meters long, and are separated by 4.4 mm. What is the force if both wires carry a current of 14.8 amps?

-a) 2.36 x 10^-3 newtons

-b) 7.47 x 10^-3 newtons

-c) 2.36 x 10^-2 newtons

+d) 7.47 x 10^-2 newtons

-e) 2.36 x 10^-1 newtons

40. Blood is flowing at an average rate of 21.5 cm/s in an artery that has an inner diameter of 3.5 mm. What is the voltage across a hall probe placed across the inner diameter of the artery if the perpendicular magnetic field is 0.11 Tesla?

-a) 8.28 x 10^-6 Volts

-b) 2.62 x 10^-5 Volts

+c) 8.28 x 10^-5 Volts

-d) 2.62 x 10^-4 Volts

-e) 8.28 x 10^-4 Volts

41. An electron tube on Earth's surface is oriented horizontally towards magnetic north. The electron is traveling at 0.06c, and Earth's magnetic field makes an angle of 48.5 degrees with respect to the horizontal. To counter the magnetic force, a voltage is applied between two large parallel plates that are 59 mm apart. What must be the applied voltage if the magnetic field is 45μT?

-a) 1.1 x 10⁰ volts

-b) 3.6 x 10⁰ volts

-c) 1.1 x 10¹ volts

+d) 3.6 x 10¹ volts

-e) 1.1 x 10² volts

42. Which lens has the shorter focal length?

- a)

+ b)

- c) They have the same focal lengh.

43. If this represents the eye looking at an object, where is this object?

- a) very far away

- b) at infinity

- c) directly in front of the eye (almost touching)

- d) One focal length in front of the eye

+ e) Two (of the other answers) are true

44. After passing through a the lens of a camera or the eye, the focal point is defined as where the rays meet.

- a) true

+ b) false

45. Mr. Smith is gazing at something as shown in the figure to the left. Suppose he does not refocus, but attempts to stare at the star shown in the figures below. Which diagram depicts how the rays from the star would travel if he does not refocus?

+ a)

- b)

- c)

46.

Shown is a corrective lens by a person who needs glasses. This ray diagram illustrates

- a) how a nearsighted person might see an object that is too close for comfort

- b) how a farsighted person might see a distant object

+ c) how a nearsighted person might see a distant object

- d) how a farsighted person might see an object that is too close for comfort

47.

Shown is a corrective lens by a person who needs glasses. This ray diagram illustrates

- a) how a nearsighted person might see a distant object

+ b) how a farsighted person might see an object that is too close for comfort

- c) how a nearsighted person might see an object that is too close for comfort

- d) how a farsighted person might see a distant object

48. In optics, normal means

- a) to the left of the optical axis

- b) parallel to the surface

- c) to the right of the optical axis

+ d) perpendicular to the surface

49. The law of reflection applies to

- a) only light in a vacuum

+ b) both flat and curved surfaces

- c) telescopes but not microscopes

- d) curved surfaces

- e) flat surfaces

50. When light passes from air to glass

- a) it does not bend

- b) the frequency increases

- c) the frequency decreases

+ d) it bends towards the normal

- e) it bends away from the normal

51. When light passes from glass to air

- a) the frequency decreases

- b) the frequency increases

+ c) it bends away from the normal

- d) it bends towards the normal

- e) it does not bend

52. An important principle that allows fiber optics to work is

- a) partial internal absorption

- b) the invariance of the speed of light

- c) total external refraction

- d) the Doppler shift

+ e) total internal reflection

53. The focal point is where

- a) the center of the lens

- b) rays meet whenever they pass through a lens

- c) rays meet whenever they are forming an image

+ d) rays meet if they were parallel to the optical axis before striking a lens

- e) rays meet if they are parallel to each other

54. An object is placed 8 cm to the left of a diverging lens with a focal length of 4.3 cm. How far is the image from the lens?

+a) 2.8 x 10⁰ cm

-b) 4.97 x 10⁰ cm

-c) 8.84 x 10⁰ cm

-d) 1.57 x 10¹ cm

-e) 2.8 x 10¹ cm

55. An object is placed 4.15 cm to the left of a converging lens with a focal length of 3.6 cm. How far is the image from the lens?

-a) 8.59 x 10⁰ cm

-b) 1.53 x 10¹ cm

+c) 2.72 x 10¹ cm

-d) 4.83 x 10¹ cm

-e) 8.59 x 10¹ cm

56. An object of height 0.75 cm is placed 147 cm behind a diverging lens with a focal length of 86 cm. What is the height of the image?

+a) 2.77 x 10^-1 cm

-b) 3.32 x 10^-1 cm

-c) 3.99 x 10^-1 cm

-d) 4.78 x 10^-1 cm

-e) 5.74 x 10^-1 cm

57. An object is placed 10.9 cm to the left of a diverging lens with a focal length of 16.3 cm. On the side, at a distance of 5.7 cm from the diverging lens is a converging lens with focal length equal to 4 cm. How far is the final image from the converging lens?

-a) 1.88 x 10⁰ cm

+b) 5.94 x 10⁰ cm

-c) 1.88 x 10¹ cm

-d) 5.94 x 10¹ cm

-e) 1.88 x 10² cm

58. Excepting cases where where quantum jumps in energy are induced in another object (i.e., using only the uncertainty principle), which would NOT put a classical particle into the quantum regime?

- a) low mass

- b) confinement to a small space

- c) low speed

+ d) high speed

59. How does the Bohr atom differ from Newton's theory of planetary orbits?

- a) The force between proton and electron is not attractive for the atom, but it is for planets and the sun.

- b) electrons make elliptical orbits while planets make circular orbits

- c) The force between planets and the sun is not attractive for the atom, but it is for proton and electron.

+ d) planets make elliptical orbits while the electron makes circular orbits

60. What are the units of Plank's constant?

- a) momentum x distance

- b) energy x time

+ c) all of the above

- d) mass x velocity x distance

- e) none of the above

61. What are the units of Plank's constant?

- a) mass x velocity

+ b) all of the above

- c) momentum x distance x mass

- d) none of the above

- e) energy x time

62. How would you describe Old Quantum Theory

- a) self-consistent but not complete

- b) complete and self-consistent

- c) complete but not self-consistent

+ d) neither complete nor self-consistent

63. The first paper that introduced quantum mechanics was the study of

+ a) light

- b) protons

- c) electrons

- d) energy

64. What are examples of energy?

- a) heat

- b) mgh where m is mass, g is gravity, and h is height

+ c) all of the above

- d)

65. What are examples of energy?

- a)

+ b) all of the above

- c) heat

- d) momentum

66. What was Plank's understanding of the significance of his work on blackbody radiation?

- a) he knew it would someday win him a Nobel prize

- b) he eventually convinced his dissertation committee that the theory was correct

+ c) the thought it was some sort of mathematical trick

- d) he was afraid to publish it for fear of losing his reputation

67. What was "spooky" about Taylor's 1909 experiment with wave interference?

- a) The light was dim, but it didn't matter because he was blind.

- b) The interference pattern mysteriously disappeared.

- c) The light was so dim that the photoelectric effect couldn't occur

+ d) The light was so dim that only one photon at a time was near the slits.

68. Approximately how often does a supernovae occur in a typical galaxy?

- a) once a 5 months

- b) once every 5 years

+ c) once every 50 years

69. If a star were rushing towards Earth at a high speed

- a) there would be no shift in the spectral lines

- b) there would be a red shift in the spectral lines

+ c) there would be a blue shift in the spectral lines

70. An example of a standard candle is

- a) all of these are standard candles

+ b) a supernova in a distant galaxy

- c) any part of the nighttime sky that is giving off light

- d) any part of the nighttime sky that is dark

71. If a galaxy that is 10 Mpc away is receding at 700km/s, how far would a galaxy be receding if it were 20 Mpc away?

- a) 350km/s

- b) 700km/s

+ c) 1400km/s

72. The "apparent" magnitude of a star is

+ a) How bright it is as viewed from Earth

- b) How bright it would be if it were not receding due to Hubble expansion

- c) How bright it would be if you were exactly one light year away

73. In the essay "Why the sky is dark at night", a graph of velocity versus distance is shown. What is odd about those galaxies in the Virgo cluster (circled in the graph)?

+ a) they have a wide variety of speeds

- b) they are not receding away from us

- c) the cluster is close to us

- d) they all have nearly the same speed

74. Why was it important to observe supernovae in galaxies that are close to us?

- a) it is easier to measure the doppler shift, and that is not always easy to measure.

- b) because supernovea are impossible to see in distant galaxies

+ c) we have other ways of knowing the distances to the nearby galaxies; this gives us the opportunity to study supernovae of known distance and ascertain their absolute magnitude.

- d) they have less of a red-shift, and interstellar gas absorbs red light

75. What if clouds of dust blocked the light from distant stars? Could that allow for an infinite and static universe?

- a) No, there are clouds, but they remain too cold to resolve the paradox

- b) Yes, that is an actively pursued hypothesis

- c) No, if there were clouds, we wouldn't see the distant galaxies

+ d) No, the clouds would get hot